the stuff of earth

Wednesday, February 21, 2007

where did paul get his authority and teachings?

James Tabor has a recent post entitled "Where Did Paul Get His Authority & Teachings?" Tabor asserts that the answer to this question lies in Paul's personal revelations from the exalted Jesus. Since I spend two chapters on this question (Paul's epistemic authorities) in my doctoral dissertation, I feel compelled to respond to Tabor's thesis. (And I can claim this as "dissertation research time" to boot!) There is much about Tabor's post that I find problematic, but I'll focus on a few areas.

Tabor claims that Paul's "receive" (paralambanō) language, particularly in his "reception" of the "gospel" in 1 Corinthians 15, reflects his reception of direct revelation from the exalted Jesus. But this is very difficult to maintain:
  • In concluding this passage, Paul says, "Whether then it was I or they, so we proclaim and so you have come to believe" (1 Cor 15:11). In other words, the resurrection witnesses Paul has listed proclaim the same "gospel" as that which he has just outlined. So where did Peter and James get this "gospel"? From Paul, based on a direct revelation to Paul? Not likely.
  • In Galatians 1:11-12, Paul does not clearly use "receive" (paralambanō) to refer to his "revelation of Jesus Christ" (apokalupsis Iesou Christou). Rather, "receive" (paralambanō) is directly connected to "from a man" (para anthrōpou). This is then paralleled with "taught" (didaskō). Thus, this seems even to speak against Tabor's argument: Paul here uses "receive" (paralambanō) language to refer to reception of tradition or teaching through human mediation.
  • In fact, apart from the curious reference in 1 Corinthians 11:23 (see below), Paul consistently uses "receive" (paralambanō) and "deliver" (paradidōmi) language in "transfer of information" contexts to refer to humanly mediated teaching or tradition (Rom 6:17; 1 Cor 11:2; Gal 1:9; Phil 4:9; 1 Thess 2:13; 4:1; 2 Thess 3:6). This usage parallels contemporary Pharisaic and later Rabbinic "receive" and "deliver" language in reference to humanly mediated teaching or tradition (see e.g. Gerhardsson, Memory and Manuscript, 288-291).
  • As for the "revelation of Jesus Christ" in Gal 1:12, a verb must be supplied for the phrase "but through a revelation of Jesus Christ" (alla di' apokalupseōs Iesou Christou). But it is not necessarily "receive," which is now a couple of verbs back. Rather, it is at least as likely that it is simply a commonly omitted and assumed verb like eimi or ginomai, that is, "it came through a revelation of Jesus Christ."
These points support the idea that Paul is indeed speaking of humanly transmitted tradition in 1 Corinthians 15, a tradition which most likely derives from one of the resurrection witnesses as tradents (probably the first mentioned, "Peter and the Twelve"). Naturally, this raises all sorts of interesting questions. Here are a couple that are relevant to this discussion:
  • What is the relationship between this gospel tradition (1 Cor 15) and Paul's gospel revelation (Gal 1)? It must be pointed out that even in the context of Galatians 1-2 Paul acknowledges some significant contact with the Jerusalem apostles, especially Peter (1:18), and that Paul also claims his gospel was validated by these men (2:2, 6-9). Although there have been many different ways of putting all this together, I would understand it this way: 1) Paul experienced a revelation of the resurrected Jesus who had been crucified, immediately causing Paul to reflect on the significance of the crucified-resurrected Jesus and proclaim this "gospel" to others (Gal 1:11-12, 15-17); 2) Three years later Paul met with Peter for 15 days (Gal 1:18), and it was from Peter (the first resurrection witness, 1 Cor 15:5) that he learned the "gospel creed" (1 Cor 15:3-5) and other traditional material associated with Jesus and the apostles (e.g. 1 Cor 7:10-11; 9:14; 11:23-25); 3) Paul incorporated this traditional material into his missionary teaching, "delivering" that traditional material which he had "received" through human mediation as a supplement to his personally experienced "revelation of Jesus Christ."
  • How are we to understand the "from the Lord" in 1 Corinthians 11:23? Since, as noted above, Paul consistently uses "receive" (paralambanō) and "deliver" (paradidōmi) language in "transfer of information" contexts to refer to humanly mediated teaching or tradition, this should be understood in the same way. The presence of parallels in other extant Jesus tradition (especially Luke's account) is secondary confirmation of this. The "from the Lord" then likely refers to the fact that this tradition was believed to originate in the life and teaching of Jesus of Nazareth, unlike the tradition of 1 Corinthians 15:3-5 which was necessarily post-resurrection apostolic tradition. This interpretation is confirmed by the fact that in both 1 Corinthians 7:10-11 and 9:14 Paul points to the "Lord" as the originator of tradition that was believed to come from the life and teaching of Jesus of Nazareth.
Another aspect of Tabor's thesis is equally problematic. He asserts that Paul had many such direct revelations from the exalted Jesus and that these revelations were crucial for Paul in his thought and discourse. However, there is very little basis for this assertion. A couple points are worth noting:
  • The plural "revelations and visions" comes from the introduction to the passage Tabor refers to (2 Cor 12:1). Paul is not claiming multiple "revelations and visions," but rather moving on to the general subject of "revelations and visions," probably because the "super-apostles" were themselves claiming such revelations and visions as evidence of their apostolic authority. For Paul's part, he has to reach back 14 years to find a suitably impressive visionary experience to trump those of the "super-apostles." This doesn't sound like the sort of person who continuously had impressive "revelations and visions." Furthermore, Paul doesn't even relate or want to relate the content of this visionary experience--he couldn't even put it into adequate words--so it doesn't seem this particular experience had a profound impact on his teaching to others.
  • Apart from Paul's "revelation of Jesus Christ" at his "conversion/call" (see above, and on the "Christ events" below), there are only two clear places in the undisputed Pauline epistles were Paul refers to a direct revelation as shaping his actions, his thought, or his discourse. One is Galatians 2:2, where a "revelation" of some sort (whether to Paul directly or through another) has led Paul to go to Jerusalem. While this influenced Paul's action in this instance, there is no indication that it influenced his broader thought or discourse in any way. The other instance is more promising: in 2 Corinthians 12:9 Paul quotes an aphorism of the exalted Lord directly revealed to him, "My grace is sufficient for you, for power is made perfect in weakness." This does indeed seem to have shaped his thought and the particular discourse of 2 Corinthians 10-13. However, this instance stands out as unusual, and there are other epistemic authorities at work here including his reading of Scripture (Jer 9:23-24 cf. 2 Cor 10:17).
I need to wrap up this post before I end up re-writing those two chapters of my dissertation. I'll simply say that the answer to Tabor's question and the question of my post title is much more complex than simply, "Direct revelation from the exalted Jesus." In fact, Paul's primary epistemic authorities seem to have been the Christ events (especially Jesus' death and resurrection) and Scripture, both mutually interpreting each other in an ongoing conversation. Indeed, I would suggest that nearly all of Paul's thought and discourse derives from that conversation between Scripture and the Christ events.

And as for Tabor's assertion that the "word of the Lord" in 1 Thessalonians 4:15 is a direct revelation of the exalted Jesus, I'd very much disagree, but you'll just have to wait for my dissertation to be finished. In the meantime, you can check out my recent article in JSNT on such "word of the Lord" language in Paul and early Christianity, or listen to my recent ETS presentation essentially summarizing my dissertation.

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5 Comments:

  • Great stuff Michael, thanks!

    Danny

    By Blogger Danny Zacharias, at 6:22 PM  

  • Michael,
    A great response! One further text in favour of your point is Gal 1.23, where Paul explicitly acknowledges, through a third party report, that his preaching coheres with the very message he once tried to destroy. Also, with J. Schutz (I think), I might add that there must be a sense in which the gospel is larger than or encompasses tradition; for Paul, tradition is part of the gospel, but the gospel is not equal to tradition. This might help to explain the tension between Gal 1 and 1 Cor 15. One further point, as far as "epistemic authorities": would you include Paul's apostleship as falling within the Christ event? Or should this be a third authority? (Notice how his thinking is shaped by events relating to it, ostensibly in Gal 1.13-17 as compared with the theme of the letter, but also Romans 11.)

    By Blogger Nick Meyer, at 7:04 PM  

  • Nick, thanks for the note on Gal 1:23. As for Paul's apostleship and epistemic authorities, I'm working with an idea of "epistemic authority" as something which is external to Paul himself, which is (of course) accessed and interpreted by Paul through his own experience of it and in the midst of his total life experience, and which authoritatively contributes to and shapes his thought and discourse. In my dissertation I explore four of these epistemic authorities: Jesus tradition, direct/prophetic revelation, Scripture, and the Christ events. As for the Christ events, they are accessed for Paul most directly through his "call/conversion" experience, where he is confronted by the resurrected Jesus who had been crucified. It is this personal experience of the Christ events that in turn shapes Paul's apostolic self-understanding, among other aspects of his thought and discourse. Thus, I see his apostolic self-understanding as the product of his personal experience of and interpretation of the crucified-risen Jesus.

    By Blogger Michael Pahl, at 7:46 PM  

  • I read his blog last night and was disturbed by it as well. I was particularly put off by the fact that I could not comment on Tabor's blog.

    So I posted about it at my blog as well. Besides Tabor playing Gal 1 over against 1 Cor 15, I was most disturbed by his assertion that the pillars and Paul disagreed on the content of the gospel and, thus, Paul should not be trusted. Galatians 2 indicates the opposite; that Paul and the pillars agreed and that only in the application of the message of the gospel was their any difference.

    Either way, I enjoyed your blog entry and may have to alter some of my thinking because of it!

    By Blogger Matt, at 8:46 PM  

  • Where did Paul get his authority and teachings? From God: by His will and grace. Grace opens up the eyes of a man to see that all the scriptures (Tanach) prophesy of the Christ Yeshua's death for our sins, His burial and His resurrection the third day.(Luke 24, 1 Cor 15:1-6) By grace God is able to teach men. And men by grace confidently declare the truths of the one true gospel.

    Daniel Lang
    dlang4@hotmail.com
    judgmentnow.blogspot.com

    By Blogger Daniel Detroit, at 4:44 PM  

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